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Author Topic: Why was Peter sent to Cornelius and his household?  (Read 1410 times)
Oasis
•Guest•
« on: March 29, 2008, 05:20:41 AM »

Good morning all!

It seems that this account in Acts 10 is one of the larger dividing lines between Acts 2 and Mid-Acts believers.  There are a few questions pertaining to this event that I'm looking for some insight on.  A couple of these questions I know...a couple I don't.  Let's pretend I don't know anything.  That's not hard for me.  LOL!  In scanning a few titles in this section, I'm sure some of this may have been addressed, but I'll plow ahead anyway(My tool bars aren't working at the moment so I can't emphasis some words by using "bold" and "quote" and other things, but Mactastic is working to see if they can fix me).  So, bear with me.

So, what are the questions involved?

1.What gospel was Peter preaching?

2. Did Peter understand what he was preaching?

3. Was Peter actually sent to the Gentiles as Paul was, or was God using Peter for another purpose?

4. Did Peter fully understand why God sent him there?   

If anybody has other questions, throw them in the pile and let's sort em' out!

I'll just start with #1 and go from there.
1. What gospel was Peter preaching?

Look back at Acts 10:15.  God was speaking to Peter in a vision and he says,
"...Do not call anything impure that God has made clean."
Now I now that for one thing God is preparing Peter for Cornelius, and in turn, the Jerusalem Council in Acts 15.  Is God also trying to tell Peter that the Christ's death on the cross has cleansed those who believe?  I think he's just telling Peter that Gentiles can be made clean just like the Jews.   
 
Look at v. 35,

"...who fear him and do what is right."

What does Peter mean here?  In using the word "do" is he speaking of the law, as in doing something to gain and maintain Salvation?  I think so because he goes on in v 36-37 to say this,

"You know the message God sent to the people of Israel, telling the good news of peace through Jesus Christ, who is Lord of all.  You know what has happened throughout Judea, beginning in Galilee after the baptism that John preached"

Peter is telling them about the same ole' kingdom gospel that was preached to Israel.  Nothing new here, right?

So, let's look at Acts 2 and start with v 36,

"Therefore let all Israel be assured of this:  God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ."

As Les Feldick would say, "Ok, so what's the 'therefore' there for?"  Peter is refering to Jesus' earthly ministry to Israel, and all that happened in that time.  See any Gentiles in this?  Nope.  All of this refers back to God's covenant with Abraham.

v 37 "When the people heard this, they wre cut to the heart and said to Peter and the other apostles, 'Brothers, what shall we do?'"

What were they guilty of?  Crucifying their Messiah!  So now they realize their guilt and as Peter what to do.  There's that word "do" again. 
So, you've got Peter, a Jew.
He's addressing a crowd of thousands of what?  Jews.
What holiday is it?  A Jewish holiday.

So, Peter accuses them of killing their Messiah and they say, "what now?"
Peter says,

"...Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins.  And you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit."

That's law, my friends.  Peter refers to John's water baptism for Salvation mentioned in Acts 1:22.  Peter preaches this message in v 38.  Guess what's in the beginning of Peter's message to the house of Cornelius? 
Look at Acts 10: 37,

"You know what has happened throughout Judea, beginning in Galilee after the baptism that John preached."

It's that same ole' time religion of law, and to put a cap on it, what does Peter end his message with?

v47-48 "Can anyone keep these people from being baptized with water?  They have received the Holy Spirit just as we have.  So he ordered that they be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ..."

Peter "ordered" that they be baptized....that's water baptized.

So, this all tells me a couple of things:

1. Peter still preached the kingdom gospel.

2. Peter did not understand the gospel to the Gentiles or he would not have "ordered" them to be baptized "after" they were saved. 

I could get into some other Scriptures to show the contrast in gospels, but this will get us started.  I will say that at this point, some Acts 2 believers would ask,

"Well, why did Paul baptize some folks?"  That's a good question and one I look forward to some insight on as well as the others above. 

Any takers?...Kab asks, as Christine waits...chomping at the bit to jump in and give us some insight.  LOL! 
I've seen several member's names in perusing some threads, so please join in.

Have a great day, all!

ybiC,
Kab

 





« Last Edit: March 30, 2008, 11:47:21 AM by Oasis » Logged
Christine
•Guest•
« Reply #1 on: March 30, 2008, 06:22:08 AM »

Wow, kab....this is a tall order to fill, but an exciting study in and of itself. I am not ignoring your post, but am looking at scripture and allowing my thoughts to congeal (this is something that old people must do on occasion, as their "thinkers" don't work as fast as they used to when they were young )   :D LOL

I will have something for you the first of this next week, and hopefully someone else will chime in as well. This was an excellent post and gives much for any of us to ponder and then study out...dontcha just LOVE IT??????

....for posting it!

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Lu
•Guest•
« Reply #2 on: March 30, 2008, 01:02:37 PM »

Hi

Well, here's one thing I noticed:

Quote
:
Repent and be baptized every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins.  And you will receive the Holy Spirit.


"Can anyone keep these people from being baptized with water?  They have received the Holy Spirit just as we have.  So he ordered that they be baptized in the anem of Jesus Christ...."

The group of Jewish people did not received the Holy Spirit until after they were baptized.

The Gentiles received the Holy Spirit before they were baptized.  (no works required, only belief)

Perhaps, a sign to the Jewish people that things were changing??  They always seemed to need a physical sign to understand.
Would this also help make them jealous?

The Gentiles who believed were given mercy/love/salvation.

It looks like Peter was still teaching the Kingdom gospel, because he ordered Cornelius to be baptized.

This raises the question to me as on another thread can people today be saved by the kingdom gospel, if they believe in the DBR of Jesus Christ. Perhaps, so.  God searches hearts and intentions of the heart.

YFIC,  Lu
« Last Edit: March 30, 2008, 01:24:54 PM by Christine » Logged
Oasis
•Guest•
« Reply #3 on: March 30, 2008, 02:39:32 PM »

Hi Lu,

That's a great observation!  The Jews did always need a sign, didn't they?
I agree with you that even Acts 2 believers are saved as long as they believe in Salvation based on the DBR of Jesus Christ.

Lu, your thougth about this makes me wonder...
Were Cornelius and household made part of the Body of Christ since they received the Holy Spirit before baptism?
I'll have to think about that one.  What do you/anyone think?

ybiC,
Kab
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Lu
•Guest•
« Reply #4 on: March 30, 2008, 02:58:02 PM »

Oh, boy, that's a hard one!  As this happened right when everything was changing, it's tough to say.  I'm just glad him, his family, or anyone was saved. Jesus will know where they belong, so I will trust him. Smiley

YFIC,  Lu
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Ken
•Guest•
« Reply #5 on: March 30, 2008, 08:38:32 PM »

Hi;

I believe that the reason God sent Peter to Cornelius and his household is because if God had not used Peter to be a witness of the Grace of God to the Gentiles, the Council at Jerusalem (Acts 15) would never have accepted Paul and his gospel of the grace of God (Acts 20:24) to the Gentiles.   
See Acts chapter 15.

ken
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Oasis
•Guest•
« Reply #6 on: March 31, 2008, 05:39:09 AM »

Good morning, Ken!  Welcome to the discussion!

I agree with you!  They would have run Paul out of Jerusalem on a camel if he'd shown up at the Council alone and told them the program had changed...and Peter had witnesses at Cornelius's home, so it wasnt' just his word alone.

Have a great day all!

ybiC,
Kab 
 
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Christine
•Guest•
« Reply #7 on: March 31, 2008, 09:56:09 AM »

Hi Lu,

That's a great observation!  The Jews did always need a sign, didn't they?
I agree with you that even Acts 2 believers are saved as long as they believe in Salvation based on the DBR of Jesus Christ.

Lu, your thougth about this makes me wonder...
Were Cornelius and household made part of the Body of Christ since they received the Holy Spirit before baptism?
I'll have to think about that one.  What do you/anyone think?

ybiC,
Kab


Hey kab and lu and ken

I've heard it taught both ways. What cinches it for me, in my opinion, is "what gospel did Peter preach?" He preached the Gospel of the Kingdom, not the gospel of the GRACE of God.

Lu made a wonderful point when she said she really didn't know, but that she knew they WERE saved, and would trust God to sort it out. THATS the issue here...they WERE saved, even if in a transitory time , and we don't have to argue or worry about which program they FELL into, because GOD knows!

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Lu
•Guest•
« Reply #8 on: March 31, 2008, 10:15:14 AM »

After reviewing Acts 15, the big question brought forward by certain men was whether Paul and his his followers should be circumcised.
Peter and James (the brother of the Lord) both speak out. Knowingly or unknowingly they were both against them being circumcised.
It seems to be the beginning of hereafter the gospels being known as the Gospel of the Circumcision (works) and the Gospel of the Uncircumcision (no works.) Ahhhh, God's plan. Smiley

YFIC,  Lu
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Christine
•Guest•
« Reply #9 on: March 31, 2008, 10:31:29 AM »

After reviewing Acts 15, the big question brought forward by certain men was whether Paul and his his followers should be circumcised.
Peter and James (the brother of the Lord) both speak out. Knowingly or unknowingly they were both against them being circumcised.
It seems to be the beginning of hereafter the gospels being known as the Gospel of the Circumcision (works) and the Gospel of the Uncircumcision (no works.) Ahhhh, God's plan. Smiley

YFIC,  Lu

If I'm not mistaken, this is where the Jerusalem Council occurred, and where Peter and the others "perceived" the difference in gospels and separated themselves unto that gospel which had been committed unto THEM, while ACKNOWLEDGING that Paul was being given the duty to go to the Gentiles with the gospel of the GRACE of God.

Galatians 2:2 And I went up by revelation, and communicated unto them that gospel which I preach among the Gentiles, but privately to them which were of reputation, lest by any means I should run, or had run, in vain.

Galatians 2:7 But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter;

Galatians 2:8 (For he that wrought effectually in Peter to the apostleship of the circumcision, the same was mighty in me toward the Gentiles:)

Galatians 2:9 And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision.
« Last Edit: March 31, 2008, 10:36:37 AM by Christine » Logged
Christine
•Guest•
« Reply #10 on: March 31, 2008, 10:59:05 AM »

Kab said:
Quote
Peter "ordered" that they be baptized....that's water baptized.

So, this all tells me a couple of things:

1. Peter still preached the kingdom gospel.

2. Peter did not understand the gospel to the Gentiles or he would not have "ordered" them to be baptized "after" they were saved. 

I could get into some other Scriptures to show the contrast in gospels, but this will get us started.  I will say that at this point, some Acts 2 believers would ask,

"Well, why did Paul baptize some folks?"  That's a good question and one I look forward to some insight on as well as the others above. 

Any takers?...

Well, let's start with this:

Paul stated in 1 Cor. 1:17 that he was not commissioned by the risen Lord to baptize.

 This verse in the Greek is very dogmatic in a negative way: "For Christ did not send me to baptize but to preach the gospel; not with wisdom of words, in order that the cross of Christ should not be made empty."

This is a landmark verse. Paul is the only one who could write it because the 12 Apostles were commissioned to baptize (Matt. 28:19-20). The Greek word for 'send' is APOSTELLO, the verb form of the noun APOSTOLOS, apostle. Just as Jesus was sent by His Father into the world (John 17:18), so the risen Jesus sent Paul out to preach the Gospel of the grace of God (Acts 20:24) which did not include water baptism. This is the first indication that water baptism is NOW separated from the gospel message.

The reason why the cross of Christ is mentioned with 'baptism' here is because BOTH have to do with the forgiveness of sins. When water baptism is preached for the forgiveness of sins during this Dispensation of grace, it cancels out the need for the cross of Christ. This is one reason why water baptism is such a dangerous doctrine for believers - it maligns the death of Christ. And don't be fooled into thinking that preachers can get away with this kind of Bible teaching. Just read Galatians 1:8-9.

To get around this, Acts 2 brethren teach that baptism is a 'type or 'symbol' of the believer's identification with Christ (Rom. 6:3-4). They also teach that Paul's main ministry was to preach the gospel and his secondary ministry was that of baptizing, and if he couldn't do the baptizing, an assistant did this work for him. These ideas are nothing but human inventions brought about because of being inconsistent in understanding the truth related to Israel and to the Body of Christ.

The so-called great commission of Matthew and Mark does contain water baptism, and the Lord did command His disciples to baptize those who desired to be saved. But this baptism was for the forgiveness of sins, as Peter well knew on the Day of Pentecost (Acts 2:38). This is not Christianity but Evangelical Judaism.


Now...to Kabs question: Why did Paul baptize?

1 Corinthians 1:14 I thank God that I baptized none of you, but Crispus and Gaius;
1 Corinthians 1:15 Lest any should say that I had baptized in mine own name.
1 Corinthians 1:16 And I baptized also the household of Stephanas: besides, I know not whether I baptized any other.

The question I would pose is Why did Paul STOP baptizing after only having baptized these few? Could it be that as he received progressive revelation, he realized that water baptism wasn't part of the GRACE MESSAGE? Did he come to the realization that to add water to the ONE baptism of Eph 4:5 was to "make the Cross of none effect?" Remember...transition, transition.

What do YOU think about it? I am still researching in Acts Dispensationally Considered by Stam , but am preparing for a house guest and haven't been able to give it the close attention I want to...so I WILL get to it sooner or later....LOL.
« Last Edit: March 31, 2008, 11:29:58 AM by Christine » Logged
Oasis
•Guest•
« Reply #11 on: April 02, 2008, 05:35:15 AM »

Hi all,

Great explanation of the distinction between Paul and the 12, Christine! 

The great commission in Matthew and Mark was directed to Jews.  Look at Deuteronomy 28 where Moses prophecys about the blessings for obedience and the curses for disobedience.  Verses 64-65 read,

"Then the LORD will scatter you among all nations, from one end of the earth to the other.  There you will worship other gods--gods of wood and stone, which neither you nor your fathers have known.  Among those nations you will find no repose, no resting place for the sole of your foot.  There the LORD will give you an anxious mind, eyes weary with longing, and a despairing heart."

So what's it saying?  There were Jews scattered in every nation.  This by itself doesn't tell us that the commission was directed only at the Jews, but coupled with other Scriptures, such as Matthew 10:5 where Jesus says,

"...Do not go among the Gentiles..."

and in v 6 where he continues,

"...preach this message:  The kingdom is near." 

This helps cement our knowledge of what the message was and to whom it was to be preached.

Have a great day, all!

ybiC,
Kab
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Oasis
•Guest•
« Reply #12 on: April 02, 2008, 03:43:34 PM »

Christine
Quote
Now...to Kabs question: Why did Paul baptize?

1 Corinthians 1:14 I thank God that I baptized none of you, but Crispus and Gaius;
1 Corinthians 1:15 Lest any should say that I had baptized in mine own name.
1 Corinthians 1:16 And I baptized also the household of Stephanas: besides, I know not whether I baptized any other.

The question I would pose is Why did Paul STOP baptizing after only having baptized these few? Could it be that as he received progressive revelation, he realized that water baptism wasn't part of the GRACE MESSAGE? Did he come to the realization that to add water to the ONE baptism of Eph 4:5 was to "make the Cross of none effect?" Remember...transition, transition.

What do YOU think about it? I am still researching in Acts Dispensationally Considered by Stam , but am preparing for a house guest and haven't been able to give it the close attention I want to...so I WILL get to it sooner or later....LOL.
I agree, Christine.  I think another possible reason Paul stopped baptizing was because of the temptation to slip back into the traditions that had been practiced for generations under the law.  Possibly Paul's thinking was, "Out of sight...out of mind".

I'll be interested to hear what you find in "Acts Dispensationally Considered".  That one is on my list.

ybiC,
Kab 
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Christine
•Guest•
« Reply #13 on: April 02, 2008, 04:05:23 PM »

Christine
Quote
Now...to Kabs question: Why did Paul baptize?

1 Corinthians 1:14 I thank God that I baptized none of you, but Crispus and Gaius;
1 Corinthians 1:15 Lest any should say that I had baptized in mine own name.
1 Corinthians 1:16 And I baptized also the household of Stephanas: besides, I know not whether I baptized any other.

The question I would pose is Why did Paul STOP baptizing after only having baptized these few? Could it be that as he received progressive revelation, he realized that water baptism wasn't part of the GRACE MESSAGE? Did he come to the realization that to add water to the ONE baptism of Eph 4:5 was to "make the Cross of none effect?" Remember...transition, transition.

What do YOU think about it? I am still researching in Acts Dispensationally Considered by Stam , but am preparing for a house guest and haven't been able to give it the close attention I want to...so I WILL get to it sooner or later....LOL.
I agree, Christine.  I think another possible reason Paul stopped baptizing was because of the temptation to slip back into the traditions that had been practiced for generations under the law.  Possibly Paul's thinking was, "Out of sight...out of mind".

I'll be interested to hear what you find in "Acts Dispensationally Considered".  That one is on my list.

ybiC,
Kab 

Yes, you MUST get those...its a two book set and very enlightening. I PROMISE to do my homework tonite and see what he has to say about Cornelius to post tomorrow...the days just keep getting away from me...I'm doing yardwork and weeding and raking today cuz its really nice out...rain scheduled for the rest of the week...so I do apologize for not getting to that sooner. Hang on...I'm peddling as fast as I can....LOL LOL

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